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<blockquote type="cite"
cite="mid:mailman.2855.1514073518.31490.avodah-aishdas.org@lists.aishdas.org">
<pre wrap="">Tue, 19 Dec 2017 "Mandel, Seth" <a class="moz-txt-link-rfc2396E" href="mailto:mandels@ou.org" moz-do-not-send="true"><mandels@ou.org></a> wrote:
There is no proof that anyone spoke Hebrew. ... the Torah was written in Hebrew because that is
what the Jews understood at the time of Moshe Rabbeinu and the N'vi'im.
... What did Yaakov speak to Rochel and
Leah, who had never been in EY? ...
one cannot know from the T'NaKh who spoke what when and where.
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Well, at least when the matriarchs and patriarchs stated the reasons
for the names they gave their children, they were obviously speaking
the same Hebrew spoken in the times of Moshe Rabbeinu. <br>
<br>
The only way to question this would be to suggest that originally
Yitzchak, for instance was called "HeShallLaugh" in some other
language, and over the next 5 centuries the bnei Yisrael (or the
descendants of HeWillStriveWithG-d, or whatever), knowing the
meaning of the name, changed it to Yitzchak.And did the same with
each one of all the other names given in the chronologies, which are
also clearly contractions of Mattan Torah time Hebrew words.<br>
<br>
And a similar convoluted explanation would have to be made when an
allegedly unHebrew-speaking Eisav cracked ''Ha-chi kara shmo
Yaakov--Vayak-veini zeh pa'amayyim...?!"<br>
<br>
I think all that is extremely unlikely, even without invoking the
masorah (of no less import than the Masorah that HQBH dictated the
Torah to Moshe Rabbeinu in the eponymous Biblical Hebrew) that the
shevatim in Moshe Rabbeinu's time retained the names given to their
ancestors (cited in many places including BeMidbar Rabbah 13:20 s.v.
Bayom HaShishi and Midrash Tehillim 114:4). <span style="color:
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<br>
Zvi Lampel <br>
<br>
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