<div dir="ltr"><div class="gmail_extra"><br><div class="gmail_quote">On Sun, Apr 14, 2013 at 10:38 AM, Meir Rabi <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:meirabi@gmail.com" target="_blank">meirabi@gmail.com</a>></span> wrote:<br>
<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex"><p>Do we know where RY was on that day, that taking his walking
stick and his money, he walked to Yavneh? Why is it any more reasonable to
suggest that he walked from beyond the Techum than to imagine that he walked
within the Techum? Besides, that would not have been as effective a public display
as RY wearing leather shoes or sandals. </p></blockquote><div>Are you so sure that wearing shoes on YK is deOraita? The Rosh in Yoma 8:1 doesn't think so. ְAnd even the Ran wqho does believe it is pentateuchal, (how is that translation of DeOraita, after all, the Bible includes NaKh ;-)), defines it as messaro hakatuv lachakhamim.<br>
<br></div><div>Whereas carrying is more likely to be a DeOraita, especially if he was coming from outside the city, as the text does seem to imply.<br></div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">
<p>Furthermore, may we assume that it would have been
normal for those times for the people to wear leather footwear? Is it not
reasonable to assert that the Mishna’s omission of RY putting on his shoes, as
it lists his taking his walking stick and his money, is significant and worthy
of being noted?</p></blockquote><div>No. Many people wen barefoot. Perhaps RY was poor (I have no idea), or he could have preferred wooden clogs or even wooden sandal (FWIW, our leather shoes combine both technologies, as the heel is generally wood or synthetic material). <br>
</div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">
<p>Concerning the various versions that are recorded regarding
the exchanges that RY had with RA and others, I merely note that from the
Mishnah it appears that even following RA exposition that validated RG’s ruling
and setting of Rosh Chodesh, RY was still mightily distressed. We don’t see
that he was at all decided to abide RG instruction or not. AFAIK, we may well
suggest he was quite happy to go and felt no sense of humiliation in submitting
himself to RG ruling: his distress was entirely due to his thinking that the
people would all be missing and desecrating the true day of YK.
</p></blockquote><div>Yes, you may suggest, but there is not the slightest indication in the text to suggest this. (I know, I know, this is an argument from silence, but given that no one ever suggested and recorded this suggestion in previous commentaries know to mankind, it definitely doesn't seem an obvious explanation). In fact, if the issue is what other people will think or do, iqar chasser min hasefer. So this argument from silence is actually not that weak.<br>
</div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex"><p>
</p><p>Now going back to Rabbi Teitz’s suggested resolution of the
anomalies between the Mishna’s version and the Berayasa’s version of what RA
said – From the Mishnah it seems that RY was NOT happy to accept RA exposition.
He perhaps deemed it to be a bit of clever footwork but not really a true
Halachically binding or legitimate approach. He therefore did not say Akivah,
you have comforted me; and he still sought comfort elsewhere. </p></blockquote><div>I also suggested something along those lines. <br></div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">
<p>In the Berayasa’s version, RA offered an exposition that RY
did accept. Perhaps he accepted it because it was - as
the Berayasa intimates - the exposition of RY himself, and was
therefore immediately comforted. Indeed, according to this analysis, there are two versions as to what RA actually said to RY and whether RY did teach this Derasha. </p></blockquote></div>The two versions do not conflict, I assume that they simply happened one after the other (RA1, RD1, RD2 and RA2).<br>
<br></div><div class="gmail_extra">By the way, as was already pointed out to you, just because RA said to RY limadetani does not mean that it had been RY's teaching. It rather seems like a standard phrase when correcting or teaching one's teacher, and was more likely RA's chidush (as it fits very well with RA's general approach to peshat. Listen to RYoel Bin Nun's shiur on this, downloadable on the site of Yeshivat Maaleh Adumim, shitato shel Rabbi Aqiva, to be totally blown away by his analysis of RA).<br>
</div><div class="gmail_extra"><br><br clear="all"></div><div class="gmail_extra">Kol tuv,<br></div><div class="gmail_extra">-- <br><div dir="ltr">Arie Folger,<br>Recent blog posts on <a href="http://ariefolger.wordpress.com/" target="_blank">http://ariefolger.wordpress.com/</a><br>
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