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<DIV><FONT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: transparent" color=#000000 size=2 face=Arial>From: David Riceman <A href="mailto:driceman@optimum.net">driceman@optimum.net</A><BR></FONT></DIV>
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<DIV><FONT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: transparent" color=#000000 size=2 face=Arial><<There is no issue of hataras nedarim nor do we have
matrilineal <BR>minhagim -- not patrilineal minhagim either, for that matter, in
the <BR>case of a married woman.>> [--TK]<BR><BR>Isn't this a circular
argument? Something becomes an implicit neder if <BR>you intend to do it
forever; it's not a neder if you intend to change it <BR>when you marry (YD
214:1).<BR><BR>OTOH it certainly is possible for a woman who has made nedarim to
marry, <BR>and the nedarim don't disappear by the act of marriage (EH
39:1-2).<BR><BR>David Riceman</FONT></FONT></DIV>
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<DIV>>>>>></DIV>
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<DIV>The original question that started this thread was whether, if the girl's
mother had never worn a sheitel, that fact somehow constituted an implicit neder
on the part of the girl never to wear a sheitel herself, either. My answer
was no, it did not.</DIV>
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<DIV>To be clear, I was not talking about hataras nedarim in general but in that
specific case -- if her mother did not wear a sheitel, did a daughter need to do
hataras nedarim before she could wear a sheitel? In that specific context
I wrote, "There is no issue of hataras nedarim" (nor of mother's minhag,
either). </DIV>
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<DIV>The fact that her mother never wore a sheitel in no way indicates that the
daughter "never intended to wear a sheitel."</DIV>
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<DIV><FONT lang=0 color=#0000ff size=2 face=Arial FAMILY="SANSSERIF" PTSIZE="10"><BR><STRONG>--Toby Katz<BR>================</STRONG></FONT><FONT lang=0 color=#000000 size=2 face=Arial FAMILY="SANSSERIF" PTSIZE="10"><BR><BR><BR><BR><BR>_____________________</FONT></DIV></DIV>
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