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<DIV>by makom, not by ancestry, then why doesn't all of America follow
the minhagim of the Spanish/Portuguese Jews who first came here?
All of the shuls founded in America until the middle of the 19th century
followed the Spanish/Portuguese ritual. <BR><BR>Did not the followers
of the GRA who came to EY follow their minhagim and not those of the
Sephardim who were already in EY? Shouldn't they have followed the
minhagim that were in effect when they arrived, according to you?
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<DIV><BR>Rav Moshe Feinstein wrote that there is no minhag hamakom in the
US. I don't think there is an halachic answer to the above.
Sociologically/psychologically it probably has to do with keeping a rooted
piece of life, when going through a huge move transition. This would
probably answer both above questions.<SPAN class=094050420-16062011><FONT
face=Arial color=#0000ff> </FONT></SPAN></DIV>
<DIV><SPAN class=094050420-16062011><FONT face=Arial
color=#0000ff>=============================================================</FONT></SPAN></DIV>
<DIV><SPAN class=094050420-16062011><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff>Yes it
would - but it is not an halachic statement. I have yet to hear a good
explanation of this issue (other than the "second wave" should have
followed the practices of the first , but once they didn't, they created a new
reality -or- the rules/reality of minhag have changed since the
Talmudic geocentric rules </FONT> <FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff>
were promulgated (not clear to me by whom))<BR>KT<BR>Joel
Rich</FONT></SPAN><BR></DIV></BLOCKQUOTE><br><br><table bgcolor=white style="color:black"><tr><td><br>THIS MESSAGE IS INTENDED ONLY FOR THE USE OF THE <br>
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