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<div class="gmail_quote">On Wed, Jun 10, 2009 at 10:22 AM, David Riceman <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:driceman@att.net">driceman@att.net</a>></span> wrote:<br>
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<div class="im">Yitzchok Zirkind <<a href="mailto:yzkd@aol.com" target="_blank">yzkd@aol.com</a> <mailto:<a href="mailto:yzkd@aol.com" target="_blank">yzkd@aol.com</a>>> wrote:<br>
<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="PADDING-LEFT: 1ex; MARGIN: 0px 0px 0px 0.8ex; BORDER-LEFT: #ccc 1px solid"><br> He didn't say the Nvuoh (it was a Nvuoh for him personally).<br><br></blockquote></div>How did he get Yitzhak's consent? </blockquote>
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<div>He told him "e-lokim yireh lo haseh "l'oloh" (not Lshchita) bnee (22:7 and rashi that they both "understood" that he will be Nishchat, but not that the word was used).</div>
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<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="PADDING-LEFT: 1ex; MARGIN: 0px 0px 0px 0.8ex; BORDER-LEFT: #ccc 1px solid"> Just to add, had he repeated it (as he did to HKB"H) he would have used the exact same words that was said to him (as Rashi says he said to HKB"H).<br>
</blockquote></div>Mimah nafshach? If so, he would have misinterpreted his nevuah. If, as you argued previously, "he [thought] MORE then was meant", he was oveir the issur. Misunderstanding seems to be the preferable choice. </blockquote>
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<div>When using the same words he can't be oveir, only when he misrepresents what HKBH told him, (the Rambam you quoted A"Z 5:8 says "Hamisnabei Mah Shelo Shoma" ).</div>
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<div>Kol Tuv,</div>
<div>Yitzchok Zirkind</div></div>