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<P class=MsoNormal style="MARGIN: 0in 0in 0pt"><FONT face="Times New Roman"
size=3><SPAN style="FONT-SIZE: 12pt"><FONT color=#000000>On the question of
mesora, RHS argues that Ashkenazim who now wear techeles should follow the
opinion of Rashi and the baalei Tosefos that 4/8 strings are blue, as opposed
to the Raavad (2/8) and Rambam (1/8). <SPAN
style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </SPAN>I find this fealty to the chachmei
Ashkenaz in this case a bit puzzling.<SPAN style="mso-spacerun: yes">
</SPAN>I understand that where there is a longstanding Ashkenazic custom in
accordance with the chachmei Ashkenaz in a particular halacha, that should be
followed by Ashkenazim.<SPAN style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </SPAN>However,
why should the chachmei Ashkenaz carry more weight when their p’sak has never
been practically implemented?<SPAN style="mso-spacerun: yes">
</SPAN>After all, we Ashkenazim follow the opinion of the Rambam over Tosefos
when lighting chanukas neros mehadrin min hamehadrin.<SPAN
style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </SPAN>It would never occur to me to revisit
this halacha.<SPAN style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </SPAN>True, in that case,
there is a minhag Ashkenaz against the chachmei Ashkenaz, whereas with
techeles, there is simply no minhag at all.<SPAN
style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </SPAN>However, I don’t find RHS’s argument
persuasive.<SPAN style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </SPAN>RHS says that, even
though the Vilna Gaon held that Tosefos’s shita is definitely incorrect, only
those who always follow the Gaon’s opinion should do so in this case.<SPAN
style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </SPAN>Again, why should this be the case
where there is no prevailing minhag?<SPAN style="mso-spacerun: yes">
</SPAN>(By way of disclosure, I currently await delivery of my Rambam-shita
techeles from <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:country-region
w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region></st1:place> to attach to my arba kanfos,
so this is on my mind.)<o:p></o:p></FONT></SPAN></FONT></P>
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color=#000000 size=3><SPAN
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<P class=MsoNormal style="MARGIN: 0in 0in 0pt"><FONT face="Times New Roman"
size=3><SPAN style="FONT-SIZE: 12pt"><FONT color=#000000>Kol
tuv<o:p></o:p></FONT></SPAN></FONT></P>
<P class=MsoNormal style="MARGIN: 0in 0in 0pt"><FONT face="Times New Roman"
color=#000000 size=3><SPAN style="FONT-SIZE: 12pt">Dov Kay</SPAN></FONT><FONT
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style="FONT-SIZE: 10pt; FONT-FAMILY: Arial"><o:p></o:p></SPAN></FONT></P>
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<DIV><SPAN class=723110815-12082008><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff
size=3> I suppose it depends on how you define prevailing
minhag. For example, when the gemara says we always follow the opinion of
R' X over R'Y, in the absence of other circumstances would you say it's OK to
follow R'Y because the case was not a practical issue till years later? You
seem to be arguing that when there is no prevailing minhag that it's kol
hayashar beinav yaaseh but why wouldn't we follow our usual dynamics of
psak</FONT></SPAN></DIV>
<DIV><SPAN class=723110815-12082008><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff
size=3><BR>The nerot example has always interested me - I'm sure R'RW has some
comment on how the practice developed to follow the Rambam - I'd love to know
historically what the actual transition was (I assume at some time they
followed tosfot opinion in Europe?)<BR>KT<BR>Joel
Rich</FONT> </SPAN></DIV></BLOCKQUOTE><br><br><table bgcolor=white style="color:black"><tr><td><br>THIS MESSAGE IS INTENDED ONLY FOR THE USE OF THE <br>
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