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<P><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Arial">I was struck by (Rashi's explanation of) Rav's statement (Sanhedrin 20b) that parshat hamelech was to scare the people but that the king did not really have the power to do these things. It's hard to understand how Shmuel Hanavi could have said these things to the people if they weren't in the king's power. Has anyone heard anything on this (e.g. why this qualifies for mshaneh mpnei hashalom)</FONT></P>
<P><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Arial">KT<BR>
Joel Rich</FONT>
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