R' Chanani Sandler asked if there is a problem of giving food to a non-religious Jew because he won't make a beracha. <br><br>Here is an analysis of some of the sources.<br><br>The gemara in Avoda Zara (6b) learns out from the pasuk of lifnei e'ver
that you are not allowed to give a Nazir wine. The gemara concludes
that this is only in a case of tre ivra d'nahara (literally 2 sides of the
river), meaning he cannot do the issur without you, but in a case of chad ivra d'nahara (literally 1 side of the river), where he could do the issur
without you (he could ask his neighbor for wine) it is permitted.
Tosafos paskens like this, that whenever he can do the aveira without
you it is permitted and there is no lifnei e'ver. The Ran there comments
that although there is no prohibition of lifnei e'ver, it is still
prohibited m'drabbanan because of m'sayeah l'ovrei aveira, you are helping
him do an aveira. <br><br>The Shulchan Aruch in Yoreh Deah Siman 151
paskens like the Ran, that even if he can do the issur without you it
is prohibited. The Rama there comments that yesh omrim like Tosafos that it is
permitted v'chen nohagim. However, many of the acharonim disagree with the
Rama (Magen Avraham, Shach, Gra) and pasken like the Ran because
Tosafos in other places assumes that there is an issur d'rabbanan in
such a situation.<br><br>The Shach as explained by the Dagul Mer'vava has a
very important kula. The Shach says that there is no machlokes between
Tosafos and the Ran. Tosafos is talking about a case where he is doing
the aveira b'meizid and therefore there is no issur of helping him do an
aveira while the Ran is talking about a case of shogeg and therefore
there is an issur d'rabbanan to help him. <br><br>It comes out
according to the Shach that whenever the person is doing the aveira b'meizid and/or there is no way for you to stop him, it is mutar to give
him the issur if he could do the issur without you. <br><br>R' Akiva Eiger takes a different tack regarding lifnei e'ver. In Yoreh Deah Siman 151 sif 6 the Shulchan Aruch writes that it is prohibited for a woman to cut
off the payists of a man according to some opinions. R' Akiva Eiger comments
that according to everyone there would be an issur of lifnei e'ver on the
woman. He then states the following chiddush. If the man could cut his
own payists and is going to do it, the woman can cut them for him and
will not violate lifnei e'ver. He explains as follows. If the man cuts his
own payists, he violates 2 issurim, makif and nikaf. If the woman cuts
them, he only violates the issur of nikaf and not makif. Meaning, that if
the woman cuts them she is saving him from an additional aveira and
therefore there is no issur lifnei e'ver as her action is saving him from
an additional aveira.<br><br>It comes out according to R' Akiva Eiger that if
your action reduces the total number or severity of aveiros committed
then there is no issur of lifnei e'ver.<br><br>R' Moshe (Yoreh Deah siman 72)
discusses the following case. A religious caterer asked him if he is
allowed to cater an affair where there will be mixed dancing. Is there
a problem of lifnei e'ver? <br><br>R' Moshe answered that it is allowed for 2 reasons:<br>1.
We pasken like the Shach as explained by the Dagul M'revava and therefore
in this case where they are doing it b'meizid (and they would not listen
to you) it would be permitted.<br>2. This is not lifnei e'ver. The classic
case of lifnei e'ver is where you give someone or help someone do an
aveira. Here your action is perfectly mutar both for you and the other
person. You don't have to worry that he will use it for an aveira. If
that was the case (that you have to worry that he will use it for an aveira) then R' Moshe asks how can you sell anything to a
non-religious Jew? If you sell him a pot, he will use it for non-kosher
food or basar v'chalav, etc. Yet, no one thinks that there is an issur of lifnei e'ver
there. The reason is because since your action is perfectly mutar for
both you and him therefore there is no lifnei e'ver.<br><br>Based on the above we can
answer our original question about giving a non-religious Jew food. It would seem to be permitted for the following reasons:<br><br>1. R' Akiva Eiger - RSZA (Minchas
Shlomo Siman 35) was asked this question and was matir for the
following reason. He explained that if you don't give him food he will
be insulted and he will violate a bigger aveira, lo sisna es achecha.
Therefore based on R' Akiva Eiger's reasoning (your action saves him from a bigger
aveira) it would be permitted.<br>2. It seems that we pasken like the
Shach (at least by issurim d'rabbanan) and therefore here where he is a meizid it would be mutar. R' Moshe relies on the Shach as does R'
Shternbuch.<br>3. R' Moshe's sevara applies here as well. You are
giving him food which he is allowed to eat. You don't have to worry
that he will do an aveira with it.<br><br>