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<P><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Courier New">R. MYG wrote (re: the Israel as a Jewish state):</FONT>
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<P><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Courier New">Not so Poshut. See Rambam Bais HaBechira 6:14-16 and the Ra'avad there. It</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Courier New">is at least a Machlokes Rishonim, and I'd like to see a source for a clear</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Courier New">P'sak B'zman Hazeh.</FONT>
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<P><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Courier New">Although I'm not sure how relevant any of this is to the question of whether Israel is a Jewish country, which seemed to be the issue under discussion, the Rambam cited by R. MYG sets forth his view that the kedusha of yerushalayim and the mikdash was by the kedusha rishona, because it was done by Hashem, and the Ra'avad disagrees. The Rambam is clear that the kedusha done by Ezra was via chazaka and where Ezra's settlements occurred, the kedusha she-niya continues, hence the obligation for teruma and ma'aser. If the proposition being asserted is that Hashem's giving the land to the Jews does not establish the kedusha so Israel is not a Jewish country, the argument proves way too much -- or else, we would say that Boro Park produce requires teruma and ma'aser. Obviously, there is something special about Israel, which arose from Hashem's grant (per the first Rashi in chumash, among other things). </FONT></P>
<P><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Courier New">The issue of kedusha rishona or kedusha she-niya is an issue that may merit separate discussion, but it seems irrelevant to the semantic debate at hand.</FONT></P>
<P><FONT SIZE=2 FACE="Courier New">S.</FONT>
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<P><pre wrap>Sidley Austin LLP mail server made the following annotations on 11/21/06, 09:15:47:
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