[Avodah] Was Moav Monotheistic?
Akiva Miller
akivagmiller at gmail.com
Sun May 24 12:20:09 PDT 2026
.
For this post, I will assume that we agree that Lo Siten Michshol applies
to all sorts of bad advice, but particularly to advice which encourages the
listener to do something forbidden. Further, it applies even when giving
advice to a non-Jew, if the advice is to do something which is forbidden
for non-Jews. If you disagree with any of that, please start a new thread.
If so, I am very surprised by the advice which Naami gave to Ruth (1:15):
"Look, Orpah went back to her people and to her religion; you too, go
follow her." It sounds to me like Naami is advising Ruth to return to her
old Avodah Zara. How is this not a violation of Michshol?
I do understand that there is a famous machlokes on whether or not Orpah
and Ruth had yet converted to Judaism at this point of the story.
Irrelevant! Even if Ruth was still a non-Jew, how could Naami advise her to
follow Orpah back to their Avodah Zara, given that it is assur even for
non-Jews? In fact, having seen that Orpah DID go back to her old way,
shouldn't that have been a wake-up call to *protect* Ruth from that
likelihood?
I suppose it is possible that Naami's intention was, "Go follow Orpah back
to her people, but not to her religion." (I think I saw Alshich quoted as
suggesting this.) But considering how very grave Avodah Zara is, I think it
still crosses the line into Michshol. (Especially according to my
understanding of the Torah Temimah #58, that once they would go back to
their people, it's virtually certain that they'd go back to the religion
too.)
Couldn't Naami have suggested something like, "I have nothing, and I can't
support you. But you're still better off with me than with the Avodah
Zara-niks in Moav."?
This question has bothered me for decades, but I think I have an answer,
and I hope the chevra can confirm or disprove it. Namely: I suspect that at
the time of this story, Moav was monotheistic, or at least, had a
significant monotheist minority. This would solve the Michshol problem
(admittedly only for the opinion that Orpah and Ruth were not yet Jewish),
because there's nothing wrong with a monotheist non-Jew. "Orpah went back
to her previous monotheistic religion, and so should you."
What does the pasuk say about this theory? Naami's actual words to Ruth
were that Orpah had returned to her people and to "eloheha", i.e., "her
elohim". Now, we all know that "elohim" is a tricky word to translate.
Sometimes it can mean "gods", as in "elohim acherim". And sometimes it
means "God", as in "Hashem Elokeinu". What does it mean *here*?
Curiously, ArtScroll translates this pasuk both ways! In their Tanach,
"eloheha" is rendered "her gods", but in the Shavuos Machzor, and also in
their one-volume "The Book of Ruth", it is "her god" - in the singular.
According to this, Orpah did indeed go back to her prior monotheistic
religion!
Of course, I do realize NOT to put too much stock in a translator's whim,
or what might even have been an unintentional typo. That's why I'm asking
if anyone else can contribute anything. Thanks in advance!
Akiva Miller
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