[Avodah] What is the reason for the mitzvah of giving Mishloach Manos on Purim?
Zev Sero
zev at sero.name
Sat Feb 20 19:08:07 PST 2021
On 19/2/21 2:33 pm, Micha Berger via Avodah wrote:
> On Fri, Feb 19, 2021 at 02:26:43PM +0000, Prof. L. Levine via Avodah wrote:
>> From today's OU Kosher Halacha Yomis
>>> Terumas HaDeshen (1:111), however, explains that the purpose of giving
>>> one's acquaintances Mishloach Manos is to ensure that poor people enjoy
>>> a festive and lavish Seudas Purim.
Ad kan Terumas Hadeshen. The rest is the Chasam Sofer's suggestion, or
rather the OU writer's understanding of the same, which I believe to be
flawed.
First of all, though, the Terumas Hadeshen does not mention "poor
people". He says the purpose of mishloach manos is so that everyone
will have enough food for the seudah, and therefore it must consist of
food. Money or clothing will not do, since one can't serve those at the
seudah, whereas matanos la'evyonim can be food *or* money, or anything
else that helps.
It should be readily understood that a person need not be poor in order
to find himself not quite up to making as big a seudah as he would like.
It may be that he is neither rich nor poor, he's keeping up with his
bills, but he can't afford to make the kind of purim seuda he would like
to make, and a care package would be welcome. It may also be that
someone has plenty of money but for some reason he didn't buy enough
when he went shopping, or he just isn't that good a cook, and would
appreciate an outside contribution to the meal.
>>> Although most people are not poor
>>> and therefore do not need food given to them for their Seudah,
This part is not in the ThD or the ChS, and is the OU writer's own
interjection.
>>> Chazal
>>> instituted that Misloach Manos be given to wealthy people as well,
>>> so as not to embarrass the poor (Teshuvos Chasam Sofer OC 196).
This is the ChS, except that he doesn't say "wealthy", he says one who
has plenty of food. It could even be a poor person who happens to be
well provided for the purim seudah, even if he'll be eating the
leftovers all week. Technically, according to the ThD's explanation of
the reason for the mitzvah there's no reason to send to this person --
one could send him matanos la'evyonim, but not mishloach manos! -- , but
nevertheless the ChS suggests that Chazal said to send him anyway so as
not to embarrass those who are not so well supplied.
The ChS's point, however, is not to whom one should send, but whether
the recipient can decline, and if he does whether the giver is yotzei.
So he says that according to the ThD's explanation it's obvious that if
the person actually could use the extra food then his mechilah is of no
effect; lepo'el his seudah is now short of what it could be, so the
purpose of the mitzvah was not fulfilled. But he says even one who is
well supplied should not decline, so as not to embarrass those who don't
decline.
I think this answers both of your questions.
--
Zev Sero Wishing everyone a *healthy* and happy 5781
zev at sero.name "May this year and its curses end
May a new year and its blessings begin"
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