[Avodah] Is it Hebrew or is it Aramaic?

[Micha Berger]

On Sat, Feb 20, 2021 at 11:33:22PM -0500, Akiva Miller via Avodah wrote:
> On the other hand, consider the word "oni" (ayin-nun-yud), often translated
> as "affliction", such as in Shemos 3:7, 3:17. Onkelos translates this as
> "shibud" (shin-ayin-beis-vav-daled), so I imagined it to be an Aramaic form
> of ayin-beis-daled. But if I am reading it correctly, Klein says that it is
> indeed Hebrew, of the "shaph'el" form, which I never heard of before, but I
> suppose it was vernacular to Onkelos' audience.

I was under the impression that shif'il is an Aramaic binyan that
is borrowed by Hebrew. So, it is used for Hebrew shorashim, but the
resulting word is only Hebrew after influence from Aramaic.

But AFAIK, shif'il and the passive shuf'al (meshubadim hayinu leFar'oh)
don't appear in Tanakh.

So, one could accurately says shi'bud is Hebrew, but Rabbinic Hebrew has
Aramaic influences... So, the answer isn't all that black-and-white.

Why not re-ask on our sister list mesorah at aishdas.org ? It's full of
people interested in nusach, as well as getting leining and tefillah
"just right".

Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

-- 
Micha Berger                 Every second is a totally new world,
http://www.aishdas.org/asp   and no moment is like any other.
Author: Widen Your Tent              - Rabbi Chaim Vital
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