[Avodah] Kriat Hatorah

[Micha Berger]

On Tue, Jun 04, 2019 at 09:10:31PM +0000, Rich, Joel via Avodah wrote:
: R'YBS held that the order of kohein, Levi, Yisrael for aliyot is a
: requirement in the kriat hatorah (not in kavod) and thus, if not observed,
: there would not be a kiyum [kriat] hatorah bshlaimuta...

Lo zakhisi lehavin (and I don't own a Halakkic Positions of Rabbi Joseph
B. Soloveitchik pg 101).

We have seen the inyan of calling a kohein up first when discussing how
"darkei Shalom" can't refer to a survival strategy. If we call a kohein
first "mishum darkei Shalom", then why are we assuming any of the invocations
of the idea WRT nakhriim is any different? (Never mind the Rambam proving
"darkei Shalom" with "derkheha darkhei no'am vekhol nesivoseha shalom".)

But back to our point, Gittin 5:8 says the reason for calling a kohein first
is "darkei Shalom". Isn't that about not offending the person who would
think they deserve the first aliyah if the criterion was more objective?
(And when only the first and last person made berakhos, this didn't just
shift the competition among Yisraelim to shelishi.)

It is true that the gemara's proof-text (59b) is Devarim 31:9, MRAH
giving the kohanim their manuscript of the Torah first. Or other such
pesuqim which list teaching the kohanim first. One exception, R
Chiyya b Abba holds it is from Vayiqra 21:8, "veqidashto" -- making
it a din in qedushas kohanim, unrelated to lating.

But then Abayei continues by asking whether all this means that darkei
Shalom is deOraisa? And R Yosef says it is true that a kohein reads
first deOraisa, and yet it's because of DS.

None of which would make it a din in qeri'ah.

What's RYBS's maqor?

Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

-- 
Micha Berger                 Today is the 46th day, which is
http://www.aishdas.org/asp   6 weeks and 4 days in/toward the omer.
Author: Widen Your Tent      Netzach sheb'Malchus: How can some forms of
- https://amzn.to/2JRxnDF                       "unity" be over domineering?