[Avodah] Geonim, Rambam and Other Rishonim on Mesorah and Pesak and RMH's essay
H Lampel via Avodah
avodah at lists.aishdas.org
Sun Nov 13 21:41:34 PST 2016
RMB:
>
> Pashut peshat in Chazal is that machloqes is understood in these
> terms as well.
>
> "Eilu va'eilu divrei E-lokim, vehalakhah keBH."
You take it as '' pashut peshat''that ''divrei E-lokim chaim''means
''true [despite being contradictory],'' butthe rishonim I will cite
below hold that what you consider ''pashut peshat'' is not correct peshat.
MAHARAL
You invoke the Maharal, but the Maharal (be'er HaGolah, be'er rishon)
explains that halacha is like Hashem's creations. He gives the example
of a tree. It is composed of all four elements, but there is an
overriding one that determines that it is a tree. In halacha, too, he
says, although there are properties [in things or situations] that point
to divergent conclusions, ''only one of them is the main, overpowering
one, and that is the determining factor, and that is the halacha.''
(''V'chein, af sheyeish l'davar echad bechinos mischalafos--kulam nitnu
min Hashem, /rak ki echad mei-hem yoseir ikkar, v'hu hamachria, v'hu
halacha/.'')
That Maharal is explaining ''kulam mi-ro'eh echad nitnu.'' ''Eilu
v'Eilu,'' he maintains, implies that the determining components are
actually present in equal strength. He says that this is ''sometimes''
the case, and such was the case regarding the disputes of Beis Shammai
and Beis Hillel concerning which the Bas Kol declared that there was no
machria. Even if you consider this to be supportive of your view (I
don't), the Maharal applies this to a limited amount of cases, and does
not make it into the general rule as you do.
CHAZAL
You haven't addressed my point that every Gemora's kushya, or at least
every tiyuvta-tiyuvta, is assuming the Law of Non-Contradiction. If
Aristotle was wise enough to recognize the truth of this logic, that is
to his credit. But it is a logic that everyone from Adam to Moshe
Rabbeynu and on has been expected to use to determine truth. Chazal
taught the Sinaitic rule that if two pesukim are in contradiction, a
third one comes to qualify them, to add conditions to one or both of
them so that they no longer contradict.
RASHI
Despite what one may think ''pashut peshat'' of ''kulan Kel echad
amran'' is, Rashi (Chagigah 3b) explains it to mean ''you don't have any
of the disputants bringing a proof from any god's torah, only from the
Torah of our G-d.''Parness echad amran'': You don't have anyone bringing
a proof from the words of a prophet who came to argue against Moshe
Rabbeynu.'' That's the characterization Rashi gives to the many
divergent opinions among the chachamim. Not that they are ''all true.''
When Rashi (Kesubos 57a) explains eilu v'eilu by saying /sometimes/ this
consideration is appropriate and /sometimes/ that one is, because the
considerations change over according to /slight changes in
circumstances/, he is working with the logic that ''2 or more
contradictory statements cannot both be true in the same sense at the
same time not (A and not-A).'' And that is why he says that if there two
Amoraim are arguing over what their mentor held, one of them is saying
''sheker,''and we /cannot/ apply ''eilu v'eilu divrei Elokim Chaim'' to
such a situation.
When TOSEFOS on the same daf says that if there two Amoraim are arguing
over what their mentor held, one of them ''erred,'' it is because he is
working with the logic that ''2 or more contradictory statements cannot
both be true in the same sense at the same time not (A and not-A).''
When RITVA on the same daf quotes Rashi as the correct peshat, it is
because he too is working with the Law of Non-Contradiction .(Yes, the
same Ritva who elsewhere quotes the kabbalistic teaching about Moshe
being told 49 considerations pointing to opposite conclusions, but who
concludes that ''that is correct by way of drash, but in the derech
ha-emes there is ta'am v'sod ba-davar.'' And pardon me, but I cannot
accept that any one of us can decipher what he means, either in the
beginning or the end.)
RAMBAN on Devarim 17:11 says that one should not be afraid to follow
Beis Din Gadol even if one thinks they erred, and that one must accept
the interpretation of pesukim by the Great Sanhedrin of Yerushalayim
whether they received it from Moshe from Hashem, and whether they say it
is so according to the mashmaos or intent of the mikreh. He is working
with the assumption that the mikreh has a specific intent that is
subject to error.
TOS RABBEYNU PERETZ (Eruvin 13b)begins by taking eilu v'eilu as you do,
but cannot accept it because it is illogical. "If something is assur it
cannnot be muttar, and if something is muttar it cannot be assur." He
too is working with the Law of Non-Contradiction. He therefore concludes
that Eilu V'eilu merely means that one must follow the chachmei hador. I
take it that he means that both shittos of a machlokess are worthy of
consideration.
SEFER HACHINUCH states that by commanding us to follow the majority
opinion, the Torah teaches us the fact that the majority opinion will
always conform to the truth more than the minority.
> Yerushalmi Sanhedrin 4:2 (a similar passage in Tractate Sofrim
> 16:5): R' Yanai said: Had the Torah been given decided, we wouldn't
> have a leg to stand on. Where? "And Hashem spoke to Moshe." He said
> before Him: Master of the World, tell me what is the halakhah. He
> responded "Decide according to the majority...." So that the Torah be
> interpretable 49 ways tamei and 49 ways tahor.
I don't have peshat in why we would be at a disadvantage if we were
explicitly given a pesak for each and every situation that may arise.
Probably the thought is that it would be beyond out ability to carry all
those details and instead we were given klallim through each situation
could be halachically solved. This does not contradict the fact that
there is a correct conclusion to reach for.
>
> And then there's the problem of explaining the Tanur shel Akhnai
> story if we're seeking the One True Pesaq. We got the siyata
> diShmaya; if it was telling us the One True Pesaq, how could we
> possibly choose rabbim over siyata diShmaya?
The object is to uncover the original intent, but Hashem in His wisdom
imposed upon us the requirement that our endeavor to do so must be
restricted to what we can arrive at through our own minds' use of the
interpretive tools he gave us, and not through any new revelations.
Heavenly revelations are no longer valid for determining halacha.Why
then was there a bas kol by tanur shel Achnai? Among the explanations
given are two by Rav Nissim Gaon ( (Brachos 19b). (1) When the Bas Kol
declared the halacha follows R. Eliezer b'kall makom, it meant usually,
but not necessarily here, or someting similar. (2) It was a test for the
Chachamim to withstand the temptation to transgress the principle of lo
bashamayim hee, similar to when Hashem grants a false prophet the
ability to perform a miracle (or the appearance of one).
> ...
>
To support your take that --
>Divrei Elokim Chaim is described as going beyond the Law
> of Contradiction. Majority opinion isn't advocated as a way of
> maximizing the chance of getting the One Right Answer, but the given
> methodology for picking /a/ right answer.
--you invoke the RAN, and cite RMH's translation, which ends
Yet [God] also gave him a
> rule whose truth is manifest, i.e., 'Favor the majority
> opinion'....as the sages of that generation saw fit, for the decision
> had already been delegated to them...
I feel frustrated because in my last post I already pointed out that
this is a mistranslation, and the correct translation contradicts the
thesis.
The last sentence reads, in Hebrew,
/aval massar lo klall yivadda bo ha-emmess/.
Translating ''klall yivadda bo ha-emmess'' as ''a rule whose truth is
manifest'' is wrong, changes the meaning,. The correct translation is
But [God] gave him a rule /through which one knows the truth/, 'Favor
the majority opinion'...
And the context removes all doubt that the Ran explicitly denies that he
is referring only to ''Emes leHoraah.vs Emes leAmito. To wit (and this
is again something I already cited last time but repeat again.
In Drash 5 and 11 the Ran poses a quandary:
Since the words of those who declare something tamei and those who
declare it tahor are intrinsically contradictory, it is impossible for
both sides of the dispute to be conforming to the Truth. How then could
we say that they were both told to Moses by G-d? Does G-d have any
doubts as to what the Truth is?!
And he then suggests the approach that the sages only established ''Emes
leHoraah.vs Emes leAmito." But he then goes on to reject it for the
overwhelming majority of cases:
Now, this approach will satisfy those who hold that there are no reasons
behind the mitzvos at all and that they all simply follow the
[arbitrary] Will of G-d .... But we do not choose this approach. /We
believe that everything the Torah warns us against is indeed
[intrinsically] harmful to us, and creates a negative imprint on our
souls, even though we may not know the mechanics behind that process.
Therefore, if the consensus of the Sages is that something [that is
tamei is] tahor, so what?!/ Won't it still harm us and produce its
natural effect, whatever it is? ?...It would therefore seem that we
preferably /should/ follow the revelation of a prophet or Bas Kol, which
would tell us the true nature of the thing.
The Torah took means to prevent a misfortune that can always arise, and
that is the divergence of opinions and the creation of machlokess,
almost creating a situation of two Torahs. The Torah's remedy for this
ever-present danger was to hand over to each generation's Sages the
right to resolve halachic questions. /For in the majority of cases this
will result in both a remedy [of the problem of machlokess] and the
correct decision/.... And even though there is the extremely remote and
practically absurd possibility that they may make a mistake, the Torah did
not concern itself with that remote danger. The risk is worth taking for
the benefit accrued.
So the Ran's take is that as a rule ''Divrei Elokim Chaim'' does /not/
go beyond the Law of Contradiction. He /does/ advocate majority opinion
as a way of maximizing the chance of getting the One Right Answer, and
does /not/ merely advocate it as the given methodology for picking /a/
right answer.
Down to the Yam shel Shlomo, who wrote (Introduction to Bava Kamma)
''Never did two opposite predicates for one subject escape the lips of
Moshe'' (''shelo yatza hadavar mipi Moshe l-olom lihyos shnei hafachim
b-nosei echad''), and the acharonim, the various explanations of ''eilu
eilu'' avoid conflict with the Law of Non-Contradiction.
So as far as the consensus of rishonim is concerned, I'm making my case
from Rashi, Tosefos, Tos. Rabbeynu Peretz, Ramban, Ritva, the Ran and
Sefer HaChinuch. That's 8 rishonim. Do you have 9 that say otherwise?
Zvi Lampel
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