[Avodah] Are "Hashem" and "Elokaynu" valid Shaymos?

[Akiva Miller via Avodah]

When I began writing this post, the subject line was going to mention Rosh
Hashana. But as I wrote and developed my thoughts, I realized that my
question is not really specific to RH, but is rather about the status of
the proper noun "Hashem". To avoid ambiguity, I am referring to the
two-syllable "Hashem", and not to the three-syllable "Ado---". In this
post, spellings and pronunciations and abbreviations are important, so I am
trying to keep everything as close to the original as possible.

Over Yom Tov, I was speaking with someone about the exact words to use for
the Yehi Ratzons on the various simanim that are eaten on Rosh Hashana
night. At first, he said that he does not say the Shaymos, but then he
clarified his position, and said that his practice is to begin each with
"Yehi ratzon milfanecha Hashem Elokaynu vAylokay avosaynu..." He said that
those are the actual words he uses: "Hashem" and not "Ado---", and the
other with a Kuf and not a Heh.

I know that some machzorim do omit the shaymos, but most include them, so I
did a bit of research, and then I showed him these two sources:

1) Mechaber 583:1 says that when eating the rubia on RH night, one says <
YH"R sheyirbu zechuyosaynu. >

2) Mishneh Berurah 583:2 cites "Beis Yosef and other poskim", that the full
text is < Yehi ratzon milfanecha D' EV"A sheyirbu zechuyosaynu. >

I thought that this Mishne Brurah was clear evidence that the shaymos
should be pronounced properly, but he was not convinced, and pointed to the
Mishneh Brurah's use of the abbreviations as ambiguous.

I was flabbergasted, and decided to turn to the chevreh for your thoughts
and comments. I cannot image why someone would pronounce "Elokaynu" - with
a Kuf - in a sincere tefilla. I can easily see using it in zemiros, if one
is merely engaged in a Shabbos singalong and not a prayer. But I would hope
and assume that those who are eating the simanim on RH night are doing so
with a heartfelt prayer (as advised in the Mishna Brura that I referred to).

In fact, I'd go even farther, and suggest that when someone says
"Elokaynu", the action of replacing the Heh with a Kuf is "m'galeh daato" -
it explicitly reveals that his kavana was to *avoid* saying a Shem, and
that he is *not* saying a prayer. (It would be equivalent to telling
someone "Tonight is the Nth day of Sefiras Haomer" with specific kavana NOT
to be yotzay, so that he can count again later with a bracha.)

But I must admit that I don't know if the same applies to the two-syllable
"Hashem". One could argue that "Hashem" is not a real word in standard
English, and therefore not a valid Shem for brachos, but that it *is* a
real word in the dialect known as "Yeshivish", and that it therefore *is* a
valid Shem is such contexts.

I perceive a Catch-22, and I'd like comments on it. On the one hand, if one
says "Hashem" and "Elokaynu" to avoid saying it the correct way, doesn't
that make a farce of the whole minhag? And on the other hand, if one argues
that "Hashem" and "Elokaynu" ARE valid Shaymos, then what is gained by
pronouncing them that way?

Akiva Miller

After writing the above, I looked at the Beis Yosef that the Mishne Brurah
had referred to. It is in siman 583, "Umah shekasav Rubia". It is
interesting to note that (in my edition) he uses a different abbreviation
than the Mishne Brurah used, namely: < YRM"Y EV"A > One could argue that
the Mishna Brurah's use of a Dalet suggests that indeed one might say the
two-syllable "Hashem", but it is pretty obvious to me that the Beis Yosef's
use of a Yud refers to the three-syllable "Ado---".
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