[Avodah] Beris Milah with Metzitza 6 days of the week

[Akiva Miller]

R' Micha Berger asked:

> (1) Why does metzitzah qualify as minhag if people were doing
> it solely because of Aristotilian medical theory?
> ...
> (2) Why would RSRH, RYESpektor, etc... require metzitzah bepeh
> (even if through a tzinor), if Aristotle didn't give reasons
> for such a preference?

How did Aristotle get involved in this? Do any poskim mention him in this context?

Even if you can show that Aristotle's medical theory preceded that of Chazal, that doesn't prove causality. Chazal may well have come to similar conclusions independently.

For all I know (and, for the record, I suggest this about most or all of Chazal's medical and scientific comments) Chazal's belief in the need for metzitzah came not via any sort of scientific or empirical research or observation, but via revelation or ruach hakodesh.

Akiva Miller

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