[Avodah] Transition From Aramaic To Hebrew

Simon Montagu simon.montagu at gmail.com
Sun Apr 15 21:38:49 PDT 2012


On Sun, Apr 15, 2012 at 6:37 PM, kennethgmiller at juno.com
<kennethgmiller at juno.com> wrote:
> If you're using the text I think you are, then the 3rd word from the end is "hadarim", which you think is definitely Hebrew. This surprises me. In my Mandelkern, I was unable to find any Hebrew uses of "dalet resh" as a verb. In contrast, Mandelkern does show a few places in Daniel 2-4 where this shows up as an Aramaic word. (My guess is that this word is not from Biblical Hebrew, but entered Rabbinic Hebrew from the Aramaic, and is found in Rabbinic phrases such as mezuza being a "chovas hadar", an obligation of the resident.)

Even-Shoshan lists 2 (under the heading dalet-vav-resh): Psalm 84:11
and Ezekiel 24:5 (which seems to have a different meaning anyway).
Both of these seem to be the infinitive "dur" used as an abstract
noun, so I guess your statement that it isn't used "as a verb" can
stand.

BDB connects "dor" to the same root, as in "the set of people living
at the same time" (my paraphrase)



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