[Avodah] Yosef's Dreams

[cantorwolberg at cox.net]

H.B. wrote: : if the interpretations) are to Hashem, then why does he 
give his own interpretations??

Answer: You are not connecting the dots. By his saying that the interpretations are from HaShem,
then it obviously follows that his interpretations are also from HaShem and he is merely the conduit. 
The k'lal is that it is from HaShem and the p'rat are the interpretations that emanate from it. From a
human perception you might say he gives his "own" interpretations but the one Who "owns" him is 
where it is derived from. Would you say that Moshe Rabbeinu wrote the Torah? Semantically, that 
may be correct but where did it come from?