[Avodah] Reverting vs. Converting – The Halachic Basis For Returning To Lost Minhogim

[Micha Berger]

On Tue, Sep 13, 2011 at 07:38:20AM -0400, Prof. Levine wrote:
> Please see http://tinyurl.com/3shyxce

His source, though, it IM OC 2:24. Which is a teshuvah to someone whose
family davens Nusach "Sfard" and he got used to Nusach Ashkenaz, and now
wants to know if he has to switch back to the family's minhag. There RMF
writes that no, he doesn't, because his family was certainly davening
Ashkenaz first, before they became Chassidim. It's a heter, bedi'eved,
not to switch back to one's minhag after one left. It is not discussing
a *decision* to revert to the earlier minhag lekhat-chilah.

I therefore disagree when he writes (transliterations mine):
> It seems, NLAD, that this teshuvah has broader implications than just
> the narrow case of nusach hatefilloh addressed. Likh'orah the same
> principle should apply in general to cases of going back back to minhogim
> that were somehow lost over time, particularly, if an acceptable basis
> for departures from them is unclear, as in this case.

> So, for example, let's say a congregation wants to go back to the
> old minhog that only one person says kaddish at a time? Seems to be
> countenanced, based on this teshuvoh. If it wants to go back to singing
> LeDovid Boruch on Motzaei Shabbos? Ditto. To having the chazan say a
> special, long, melodious Barekhu at certain special times? Ditto.

It might be justifiable. For all I know, RMF might hold it is. But not
on the basis of the teshuvah cited.

Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

-- 
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