[Avodah] God who knows the future

[kennethgmiller at juno.com]

I wrote:

> Similarly, if a woman is not pregnant, or is in the beginning
> stages of her pregnancy, it is perfectly okay to pray for the
> gender of the child. While it is true that Hashem *does* know
> what gender the child will end up being, He has not yet - so to
> speak - made this decision. There is still time to pray and
> influence this future choice of His. At some point in the
> pregnancy (40 days, IIRC) He will make that decision, based on
> whatever factors He uses for this sort of thing, at which point
> the child's gender will not be an undecided thing that one may
> pray for, but it will be an accomplished fact, which no one may
> pray for (except for those tzadikim who are allowed to pray for
> miracles, which this would be).

I was asked why I made this distinction between the early and late stages of pregnancy, and specifically where I got this shiur of "40 days". After all, the Mishna (Brachos 54a) and Rambam (Brahos 10:22) simply say that this prayer must not be said then the wife is pregnant. Whence this exception for early pregnancy?

The source seems to be the Tur OC 230, who writes, "... but davka after 40 days of pregnancy. But within 40 days, his tefilah is effective." The MB (230:1) explains, "Because the shape of the newborn will have been formed; but witin 40 days, tefilah is effective."

But I looked in the Bais Yosef and Bach, and did not see any explanation of this addition. (Perhaps someone whose rishonim skills are better than mine can help out.) And I do think that it *is* a point which does need to be explained, as it seems to cut to the core of some of what we've been discussing.

I don't remember R' David Riceman mentioning it in this discussion, but there's a principle which would seem to support at least some of his position. "Amar Rabi Yitzchak: Bracha only comes on something which is hidden from the eye." (Bava Metzia 42a) As long as no one *knows* the child's gender, it can still be changed for the better. Why should it matter that this is usually determined at a certain stage in the fetus' developement, if no one knows?

My posts thus far have been based on what seems to be the acepted halacha of the Tur, Mechaber, and Mishneh Brurah, that it *does* make a difference. But I think RDR's questions have a good point, and until I understand this halacha better, I feel I must bow out of the conversation.

Akiva Miller

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