[Avodah] kimu v'kiblu, purim,

[kennethgmiller at juno.com]

R' Harvey Benton asked:
> 1. Why is the Torah binding if given to us by force? The answer
> often given is that we re-accepted it during the times of Purim.
> What then was the Torah's status upon us in-between Har Sinai,
> and the times of Purim?

R' Micha Berger responded:

> That answer isn't just often given, it's the next line in the
> gemara (Shabbos 88b). Rava presents it as an answer.

I do not see this as an answer to the question. At least, not an answer to the way RHB presents the question.

That Gemara might explain why the Torah is binding on *us*, and why the Torah was binding on *Rava*. But RHB's question was whether it was binding on the Jews <<< in-between Har Sinai, and the times of Purim >>>.

Not only does that Gemara fail to answer RHB's question, but it seems to me that it demonstrates the very opposite: If Rava says that the Torah is binding on us because we accepted it willingly on Purim, then he appears to accept the idea that the forced acceptance at Sinai did *not* create a binding obligation.

(By the way, this Gemara is on 88a, not 88b.)

Akiva Miller

____________________________________________________________
Groupon&#8482 Official Site
1 ridiculously huge coupon a day. Get 50-90% off your city's best!
http://thirdpartyoffers.juno.com/TGL3131/4df26d0f5590433b423st06vuc