[Avodah] Omer? Laomer? Baomer? Shehayom? Sefiras Haomer Debunked and Demystified

[Micha Berger]

On Fri, May 06, 2011 at 07:47:03AM -0400, T613K at aol.com wrote:
: Reminds me of the discussion we once had here about "kol Yisrael  areivim 
: zeh bazeh" or "zeh lazeh."
:  
: The conclusion was that both were correct and it didn't really make any  
: difference.

Of course they do...

Areivim zeh bazeh means that all Jews are mixed up one within the other.
The Ohr haChaim invokes it to explain why cheit ha'eigel would impact the
quality of MRAH's nevu'ah.

Areivim zeh bazeh is a blander statement of mutual hischayvus, without any
metaphysical basis posited for it.

: I suspect that if you looked at closely related languages in Europe -- or  
: even different speakers of the same language -- you would find some say "the 
: sixth day of May" and others "the sixth day in May" and although the  
: prepositions vary, the meaning does not.

But we have halakhos for shetaros, and no one writes "beshteim-asar yom
bechodesh Iyyar". Check your kesuvah which preposition is used. Lehavdil
from your kesuvah (inserted for "al tiftach peh" reasons), the Shaarei
Teshuvah argues it's la'omer by parallel to the "leyerach" of a get.

I would think a real part of the question is whether the parallel between
month and omer is valid.

:-)BBii!
-Micha

-- 
Micha Berger             Today is the 17th day, which is
micha at aishdas.org        2 weeks and 3 days in/toward the omer.
http://www.aishdas.org   Tifferes sheb'Tifferes: What is the ultimate
Fax: (270) 514-1507                              state of harmony?