[Avodah] Hallel in Maariv on Pesach night

[kennethgmiller at juno.com]

I frequently hear the phrase "Hallel in shul on Pesach night", but I don't understand why it is phrased that way. Why isn't it "Hallel in *Maariv* on Pesach night"?

Someone once told me that if a person does have this minhag, but for some reason is saying Maariv at home without a minyan, then he would NOT say Hallel, even though it is the Seder night, because he is not in shul. Why would this be?

My understanding is that the reason *for* saying this Hallel is to enable reciting the bracha "likro es haHallel", which would then "cover" the Hallel said at the Seder. If so, I can't imagine why it would be omitted by someone davening alone.

I would imagine that this might be similar to one who is davening on Rosh Hashana morning without a minyan. I honestly don't know what the proper procedure would be, and I ask the chevra for their ideas.

My wild guess is this: The tekios of musaf are the ikar, and therefore he would blow the shofar for himself during his own silent musaf, even if that's not his usual minhag, because there's no other option. He would also blow the shofar before Musaf, just like everyone does, simply to enable recital of Lishmoa Kol Shofar and Shehecheyanu. If I'm wrong, please show me my error; and if I'm correct, why would Hallel be different?

Akiva Miller

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