[Avodah] John Locke and Tzedaqa
t613k at aol.com
t613k at aol.com
Sun Jan 10 23:03:55 PST 2010
From: Michael Makovi _mikewinddale at gmail.com_
(mailto:mikewinddale at gmail.com)
>> The following question has occurred to me, and while I doubt any prior
Jewish authorities ever thought about this issue, it still seems valid
to me. After all, a sevara is d'oraita.
If you carefully read things like John Locke, Cato's Letters [etc]
one constantly recurring principle is that the
government has only those powers which the people grant it. ...
Now, I cannot go to my neighbor's house and take his money to feed the
poor. Therefore, I cannot grant the government that power either...
.... I'm sure that everything I've said so far is utterly
foreign to the Tanakh, Gemara, Rambam, etc....
Nevertheless, the Tanakh tells us that the PEOPLE choose a king.
.... And as I said, a sevara is d'oraita. Everything I've said so
far, sounds perfectly logical on paper.....
.....So my question is: given that we know that historically, the Jewish
communities would assess tzedaqa like a tax, how could they do this?
Michael Makovi
>>>>>
I'm guessing that they could do it because, in your case, a sevara is not a
de'oraisa after all.
You seem to think that if, in your own eyes, your logic is impeccable --
then your logic has the full status of a de'oraisa. But I'm guessing that
your logic is peccable.
For example -- who says that a government is "only a people's proxy"?
Cato, Locke, Thomas Jefferson? Are they Torah authorities? Maybe a Torah
government is G-d's proxy?
--Toby Katz
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