[Avodah] Moshe's name in the haggadah

[Arie Folger]

RMB and others were trying to figure out how broad the prohibition is
of pronouncing kol pessuqa delo psqei Moshe, i.e., a partial verse.

RMB suggested that two words is OK, but not more. Since I am unaware
of that distinction appearing in the Talmud, I assume he made an
implicit reference to the kind of citation that requires sirtut, i.e.,
two words, or perhaps three, are OK without sirtut, but not more.

I would like to suggest another distinction, based on the experience
of reading the Haggadah and derashot: we don't recite partial verses
*in* *a* *liturgical* *context*, i.e., qeriat haTorah, and according
to some / many, tefillah, too.And perhaps an etna'hta or equivalent is
kosher for tefillah (such as in Vayvarekh David, when we segue from
Divrei haYamim to Ne'hemiah), but not qeriat haTorah, which is even
stricter. Eitehr way, I suggest that in an exegetical context (such as
the haggadah), or in a literary context (i.e., when using Scriptural
expressions out of context), there is no problem.

What do teh esteemed list members think?
-- 
Arie Folger,
Recent blog posts on http://ariefolger.wordpress.com/
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