[Avodah] Hanukkah I and Hanukkah II

[Micha Berger]

RZS mentioned the mishnayos that refer to Chanukah. Looking at them, we
know from Mes RH that they sent shelukhim to Bavel for Rosh Chodesh
Kisleiv so that people would know when Chanukah was. This would appear
to still have been true in Rebbe's day, as the word is "yotz'im", not
"yatz'u". And, Rebbe records that we lein the nesiim on Chanukah.

So there are dinei Chanukah in the mishnah -- a day that people needed
to know when it was that had its own leining is pretty clearly a being
observed as a chag. The question isn't why Chanukah isn't assumed to be
a chag in the mishnah. The question is why it lacks an entire discussion
of its dinim.

I also do not feel I got a satisfactory answer to my original questions:
1- Which BD had the wherewithall to retire a mitzvah derabbanan? After
all, the dinim of ner chanukah appear in a codicil to Megilas Taanis
written before the mishnah -- thus the mitzvah dates back to Chanukah I.
Retiring Chanukah I would mean having a beis din capable of taking a
mitzvah off the books. Possible, but unlikely, since it would mean a
post-churban beis din (post BH and BS and their machloqes about how many
neiros to light) that was gadol mimenu bechokhmah uveminyan from a beis
din from the days of the first zug.

(It's likely Yosi ben Yoezer was among the "chassidim" who were crucified
by Bachhides in Makabiim I 7:16, as he is titled "chasid shebikehunah" in
Chagiga 2:7. He was killed by the Yevanim according to Ber' Rabba 1:65.
The relationship between this and the Chassidim haRishonim who spent
three hours on each tefillah is an idea that intrigues me. Did Bachhides
y"sh end that movement by killing off their rabbeim?)

2- Once Chanukah was retired, why did they feel a need to restore it to
the level of din? Chanukah couldn't have remained minhag?

Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

-- 
Micha Berger             The fittingness of your matzos [for the seder]
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