[Avodah] Tayshvu K'ein Taduru
David Riceman
driceman at att.net
Sun Nov 1 16:20:57 PST 2009
I spent a little time over Shabbos looking this over. I ended up more
confused than when I began, but confused in a more sophisticated way.
The AhS 639:6-9 (especially 8) discusses RAM's question about achilas
keva. Unfortunately he doesn't exactly answer it, but he does find
sources in Hazal which discuss it.
RCL pointed me to RMF's teshuva, which I also didn't understand. If I
wanted to make a case for not travelling on Sukkos I would start with
the Tosefta at the beginning of the second perek of Sukkah. The Hasdei
David there argues, however, that the Rambam (who he understands as
normative) doesn't pasken like R. Eliezer for the very peculiar reason
that it doesn't take a whole week to be mesameah banav uvnei beiso. You
can, he says, spend a day on that and then move on to other matters,
like l'hakbil p'nei rabbo b'regel, even if it requires travel. I don't
know much about RDP's family, or about Jewish life in Sarajevo in the
1700s, but I don't think my family would be happy with that arrangement.
What puzzles me about RMF's teshuva is that he finds no value in hana'ah
on Yom Tov. As I understand it, however, the kiyumim of simchah that
Hazal recommend are mostly based on hana'ah (it would be fun to quibble
about keilim hadashim based on the Rambam's remarks about revenge in
Shmonah Perakim, but I'm digressing enough as it is) - - basar, yayin,
egozim, u'klayos. So if RMF is willing to permit travel for kiyum
mitzvot (and especially in light of his later tshuva permitting
sightseeing on HhM Sukkos if you are out of the country at great expense
and have limited time even in the absence of a mitzva), and if
travelling for pleasure is a kiyyum of simchas YT, then why isn't it a
sufficient excuse? (RCL asked a very similar question).
David Riceman
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