[Avodah] ratzon chachamim

[Rich, Joel]

I'm reviewing the sugya of pidyon shvuyim (gittin 45a).  It occurs to me that to the best of my knowledge the only discussions of whether something was historically done "Brtzon chachamim" are all mishnaic.  In general when the gemara brings a proof from a maaseh shehaya iirc the question of brtzon chachamim is not raised except here (by abaye) and similarly by abaye in moed katan 18b. Note that it doesn't seem that abaye had a mesora that the actions were against the ratzon, he just seems to posit it as a possibility.  Isn't it always the case that it is a possibility-why doesn't the gemara posit this every time?  Perhaps it knew the halachic result it wanted???


She-nir'eh et nehamat Yerushalayim u-binyanah bi-mherah ve-yamenu

KT
Joel
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