[Avodah] ktanai

[Rich, Joel]

> Does anyone have a good explanation why the gemara will quote a 
> machloket in the name of amoraim and then immediately say ktannai and 
> quote the same machloket word for word in the name of tannaim (e.g 
> melech issue -
> sanhedrin20b)
> KT
> Joel Rich

If I remember correctly, Rabbi Steinsaltz says (Essential Talmud) that
it is better for a machloket to go back a far time, than for it to be
recent. If it is recent, it means there was a sudden downturn and loss
of mesorah; if the machloket is old, then it means we're no worse off
than our ancestors were.

Perhaps then the Gemara wants to show that we have the better position.

Also, perhaps it simply bolsters the Amoraim; rather than thinking they
are relying on their own sevara/de'ah, we see that actually, they are
relying on the superior sevara/de'ah of the Tannaim.

Mikha'el Makovi
_______________________________________________
But then according to the rule mentioned earlier in Nazir 56b(or maybe
it was on a blog, I forget) why wouldn't you just record the last amora
and the first tanna in one statement?

KT
Joel Rich

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