[Avodah] Fish and milk
Richard Wolpoe
rabbirichwolpoe at gmail.com
Mon Jun 2 21:03:33 PDT 2008
On Sun, Jun 1, 2008 at 12:00 AM, Zev Sero <zev at sero.name> wrote:
> Richard Wolpoe wrote:
>
> For example, just because BY states that fish and milk are not permitted
>> together does not make it normative. We analyze this BY and E.g. the Rema in
>> Darchei Moshe posits 'ta'us Soferim.
>>
>
> Actually he doesn't say it's a copyist's error, because the context
> doesn't allow for that. It's quite clear that the BY himself wrote
> milk, and meant milk. When the DM says "nitchalef lo basar bechalav",
> he means that the BY himself confused milk and meat. Needless to say
> that's a very bedochak explanation, but since there's no other mention
> of such a sakana the DM evidently feels forced to it.
>
> --
> Zev Sero
1. what in the context of the Darchei Moshe forces you to say his
statement is NOT a reference to scribal or printer error?
2. There is no mention in any of the Rishonim AFAIK re: davening arbis
late for Shavuos?nevertheless the Taz mentions it. Why can't the BY be
adding/manufacturing a new halacah/humra/minhag?
--
Kol Tuv / Best Regards,
RabbiRichWolpoe at Gmail.com
see: http://nishmablog.blogspot.com/
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