[Avodah] B'Din Heseiba L'Ikuva

[kennethgmiller at juno.com]

R' Harry Maryles wrote:
> One might ask, what is the rationale for why the D'Rabbanan
> of Maror negates the D'Oraisa of Matzah? Tosephos in
> Zevachim (78A) explains that it is based on the Halachic
> concept of Bitul Taam. This means that something that
> cannot be tasted is considered non existent.

RHM goes on to mention how much more powerful the taste of maror is, and renders the taste of matza nonexistent by comparison.

But I was under the imprassion that the rationale had something to do with mixing D'Oraisa and D'Rabanan (which, from a D'Oraisa perspective, is similar to mixing Chiyuv and Reshus), and that evidence for this can be drawn from the halacha that one IS yotzay the mitzva of matzah even if he eats it together with marror, *provided* that the marror is of a d'Oraisa nature, i.e., together with the Korban Pesach.

Am I totally off-base, or am I citing a different opinion?

Akiva Miller
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