[Avodah] Minhag Yisroel and Gra on 2 Matzos vs.3 Matzos/Rabbi shopping

[Yitzhak Grossman]

[I keep wavering over whether to drop A/A.  RnCL heads the column of
reasons for staying.]

On Sun, 28 Oct 2007 12:31:03 -0000 "Chana Luntz"
<chana at kolsassoon.org.uk> wrote:

> must rule in such a way - although even then, one of the reasons given
> why the Mitzrim were punished for afflicting the Yidden, even though it
> had been fortold and clearly was part of Hashem's plan was because they
> took pleasure in it (the other of course was because they inflicted more
> than they were required which is the other limb of this).  

You don't mention the Rambam's [0] reason, which is that it need not
have been them, but you inspired me to finally clarify my understanding
of the Rambam, about which I had been rather muddled for many years.  I
now see that I was not entirely at fault, since there is a apparently a
major difference of opinions as to what exactly the Rambam is saying
here.

There are two quite different questions one can ask about the
Egyptians' punishment:

I)  The teleological question - God's declaration of "ya'doa te'da"
predetermined the Egyptians' actions, negating their free will, so why
were they punished?

II)  The axiological question - if God desired or commanded the
Israelites' persecution, then the Egyptians were doing God's will, so
why were they punished?

Lehem Mishnah [1] remarks that there is really no question here, since
Rambam has already established that Divine foreknowledge does not
contradict human free will.  The Mirkeves Ha'mishneh (Chelm), Avodas
Melech, Ziv Mishneh, Ben Yedid [2] and Yad Peshutah [3] all explain that
the Rambam's earlier resolution only applies to God's own knowledge,
but a spoken, prophetic declaration does indeed contradict free will.
All these Aharonim apparently understood the Rambam as asking question
I.

Ramban [4] objects to the Rambam's answer, arguing that even if God
hasn't singled out a particular oppressor, anyone seizing the
opportunity of fulfilling God's will has been "zachah be'dvar mizvah".
The Ramban is obviously dealing with question II, and the Meshech
Hochmah [5] indeed counters his objection by pointing out that the
phrase "va'avadum ve'inu osam" is descriptive rather than normative, and
therefore not a justification for the Egyptians.  The Yad Peshutah
elaborates further, and points out that the question II is clearly not
the Rambam's concern here, since the context of the entire chapter is
the resolution of apparent contradictions to the great principle of
free will.  Moreover, surely even the Ramban does not claim that
"ve'kam ha'am ha'zeh ve'zanam aharei elohei nechar ha'aretz", another
verse the Rambam cites together with "ya'doa teda", is an expression of
God's will that justifies subsequent idol worship!

Speaking of the Yad Peshutah, what do it, Igros Ha'Rambam, and Ti'um
Ka'vanot [Adjusting Sights], Emet Mi Eretz Tiz'mah [Aleppo Tales] and
Ke'af'apei Shahar [The Dawn of the Day] all have in common?

[0] Teshuvah 6:6
[1] ibid. 
[2] ibid. [The new "Meforshei Yad Ha'ha'za'kah" is really great!]
[3] ibid.
[4] Bereishis 15:13
[5] ibid.

Yitzhak
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