[Avodah] Freedom of exegesive interpretation

[Richard Wolpoe]

On Dec 4, 2007 3:51 AM, Arie Folger <afolger at aishdas.org> wrote:

> Rabotai,
>
> We have, in the past, often argued about whether we are free to interpret
> verses according to our own understanding, against that provided by the
> midrashim and the Talmud. One of the issues was whether those Rishonim
> offering alternative explanation were offering additional layers of
> understanding or alternative, sometimes exclusive interpretations. A most
> notable example we discussed was Ramban.
>
> KT,
> --
> Arie Folger
> <http://www.ariefolger.googlepages.com>


Tangential question:
Can normative Halacha be derived Bb Rishonim/Acharonim directly from
p'ssukim w/o Talmudical sources?

2  cases:

   1. Maharil restricts tzitzis to the married only  by darshening
   semuchos - gedillim ta'aseh lech - ki yikach
   and
   2. Taz requires davening Arvis on Shavuos after Tzeis to fulfill
   "temimos"

note Magen Avraham ONLY requires saying KIDDUSH after tzeis. He davka warns
people to repeat shema after tzeis if they stay up all night and thereby do
not recite kri'as shema al hamitta.  Thus proving he did NOT require Arvis
after Tzeis at all.

The reason I added this Magen Av was to show that Taz was NOT rationalizing
an existing minhag/halacha with a passuk.

I cannot say for sure re: the Maharil whther he was justifying a practice
that existed [perhps due to poverty]. The oddball thing about it is that
yekkes have adaoped about 90% of the Mahairil's Minhaggim BUT NOT THIS ONE,
which might mean they felt he went too far.
-- 
Kol Tuv / Best Regards,
RabbiRichWolpoe at Gmail.com
see: http://nishmablog.blogspot.com/
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