[Avodah] Is it better to do a vaday mitzva... literalism

Richard Wolpoe rabbirichwolpoe at gmail.com
Sat Oct 6 18:32:36 PDT 2007


On 10/6/07, saul mashbaum <smash52 at netvision.net.il> wrote:
>
> The Encyclopedia Talmudit indeed cites the principle "chalitza b'makon
> yibum eina mitzvah" (regarding yibum for chayvei lavim), and then says  "not
> that chalitza is not a mitzvah *at all* (kol ikkar), but it is not the
> preferred mitzva in the face of yibum."
>

Totally tangential !
This is conceptually similar to my point about michemes Reshus -   Mah
matzinu that Chalizta is indeed RELATIVELY NOT a Mitzva but after all is a
Miztva in the context of an ABSOLUTE scale - similarly - Reshus may not mean
ABOSLUTELY peimitted but RELATIVELY permitted [viz.as compare to milchems
Chova/Mitzva]  Same with mayyimr Rishonim being called Reshus vs. Mayyim
Ahcaronim etc.

And FWIW Most Ein bein's are not literal either - rather contextually
limited in scope and NOT exhasutive.

There is another concept in Basar bechalav were a statement "there is no
issur" is limited to the core Halacah but NOT to be construed as excluding
Mar'eis Ayin

Hazal were rarely highly literal.  Applying highly iliteral standards are
mis-leading and often can lead to mis-perceptions of what is meant.  Often
teh Gmara itself reformualtes statemnts wti h"hachi Ko'amar...

-- 
Kol Tuv / Best Regards,
RabbiRichWolpoe at Gmail.com
Please Visit:
http://nishmablog.blogspot.com/
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