[Avodah] Mi Sheberach for a Non-Jew

[Meir Shinnar]

> ch for a Non-Jew
> To: avodah at lists.aishdas.org
> Message-ID: <20070904011113.GC22569 at aishdas.org>
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>
> On Wed, Aug 29, 2007 at 12:56:49PM -0400, Zev Sero wrote:
> : I don't understand the whole "baavur shemispelelim baadam".  I've  
> heard
> : it in various shuls, but it makes no sense to me.  "Baavur" is  
> meant to
> : give Hashem, kiveyachol, a reason to do as we ask; we ask that our
> : request be fulfilled in the merit of tzedaka that we've pledged, or
> : some other mitzvah that we've done or will do.  But what are we  
> saying
> : here? "Please do this in the merit of the fact that we asked You"?
>
> I don't understand RZS's (or should I say RYBS's and R' Hutner's)
> problem.
>
> Isn't /every/ tefillah granted because of the zekhus of the tefillah
> itself? It's not like we can wheedle or beg Hashem to give anything  
> but
> "gam zu letovah".
>
> Rather, as RYBS and RSRH write, tefillah changes the mispallel into
> someone who warrants different treatment. Thus the hitpa'el  
> conjugation
> of "lehispalel".
>
We are entitled to ask hashem.  We don't have the right to expect  
that our requests be granted - that is (IIRC) the tosafot's pshat in  
distinguishing two different types of iyun tefilla - and the iyun  
tefilla that is condemned is one that one expects to be  
answered, .    Saying that we expect that hashem will be mevarech x  
ba'avur she'anu mitpalleleim ba'avuro seems a clear case of this type  
of iyun tefilla.
Your pshat is that the act of tefilla is a mitzva just like tzedaka -  
and therefore the two texts - both ba'avur she'anu mitpallelim and  
ba'avur she'eten tzedak - are congruent - but most understand ba'avur  
she'anu mitpallelim as reflecting the power of prayer - rather than  
just as a mitzva - and is therefore iyun tefilla.

Meir Shinnar