[Avodah] When do the malachim come?

[Dov Kay]

My shul, Etz Chaim in Manchester, recently voted to reinstitute the 
German-Jewish minhagim which, for various reasons, it dropped a few years 
ago.

I was asked to daven kabbolas Shabbos last week and took the initiative to 
daven from the shulchan (ie the almemar), not the amud at the front.

The next morning, I was informed that in Hungary (presumably Oberland), they 
would say the whole of kabbolas from the shulchan, but in Germany they would 
only say Lecha Dodi from the shulchan;  l’chu neranena was said from the 
amud.

This puzzles me.  I always understood that kabbolas Shabbos is said from the 
shulchan because it is not part of the formal seder haTefillah.  The 
recitation of both l’chu neranena and lecha dodi was instituted by the 
kabbalists in Tz’fas.  They are both additions, so why distinguish between 
the two?  I surmise that l’chu neranena is from Tehillim and therefore 
appears more traditional than lecha dodi, which is openly (if only 
metaphorically) kabbalistic in intent and meaning.

Kol tuv
Dov Kay

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