[Avodah] P'ru Ur'vu

[cantorwolberg at cox.net]

We are taught that the first mitzvah given us comes from the command given first to Adam and Chava and then in the next
parsha, to Noach. My question is: Neither were Jewish. How then, can we say that the first mitzvah is incumbent on us since
it was not given to Avraham Avinu or anyone afterward?  If you say that the mitzvah was for all mankind, we know that it is not
so, since it is not one of the sheva mitzvot b'nai Noach. So how do you explain the mitzvah given to two non Jews?