[Avodah] Modern Day Sifrei Torahs
T613K at aol.com
T613K at aol.com
Tue Dec 30 23:37:25 PST 2008
From: Harvey Benton _harveybenton at yahoo.com_ (mailto:harveybenton at yahoo.com)
>>A number of sources indicate that the Sifrei Torahs we now
have in our possession may not be the exact (letter for letter) same one as
was
given to Moshe Rabeinu:
Yerushalmi Taanit 4:2 and Soferim 6:4 mention an episode
where 3 Sifrei Torah were found in the Azara of the Second Temple
with varying texts....
Kiddusin 30a mentions the Vav of Gachon as the middle letter
of the Torah. ....at the
time of the Gemara they were not expert in chaser and yeter.
The Rambam in Hil. ST, 8:4 wrote about scrolls that had been
corrected using the Ben-Asher scroll that he himself used.<<
[snip]
TK: All your questions stem from one misconception. As Rambam formulated
it, we say "Ani ma'amin be'emunah sheleimah shekol haTorah hametzuyah atah
veyadeinu hee hanesunah leMoshe Rabbeinu alav hashalom." You understand that to
mean, "The Sefer Torah we have today is EXACTLY the same, word for word and
letter for letter, as the one that was given to Moshe Rabbeinu. Not one
single mistake has EVER crept in or will ever creep in or can ever creep in. No
sofer in history ever has copied a single letter wrong or ever will, and
every sefer Torah in the world is EXACTLY the same as the one that Moshe Rabeinu
received."
Then, since you understand Ani Ma'amin this way, when you find that some
mistakes and discrepancies /have/ crept in over the years -- your faith is
shaken and you don't know how you can say Ani Ma'amin anymore!
One major clue that you are misreading this Ani Ma'amin is that, as you
point out, Rambam /himself/ "wrote about Torah scrolls that had been corrected
using the Ben-Asher scroll that he himself used"!
Thus, even as he wrote the words of Ani Ma'amin, he himself was very well
aware that changes /had/ crept in over the centuries and that not every sefer
Torah -- and perhaps not even his own personal sefer Torah -- was demonstrably
EXACTLY the same, letter for letter, as the one written by Moshe Rabbeinu.
If Rambam himself was aware that differences existed between different
scrolls, how could he have written "shekol haTorah hametzuyah atah veyadeinu hee
hanesunah leMoshe Rabbeinu"? Obviously, he did not understand "the Torah we
have is the same as the one given to Moshe Rabbeinu" to mean "the Torah we have
is identical in every single letter and no mistake or slight variation in
spelling has ever crept in."
What Rambam DID mean, I will discuss below.
RHB: >> Gil Student 2001 in Parshas Vayera Challenge and other
sources on Tikkun Soferim indicate that the Ktav of the Torah (Ktave Ivrit or
Ktav Ahsurit) nowadays may be different that what was given to Moshe
Rabeinu.<<
TK: It is known that the ktav we have now is not the same ktav that has
always been used, and this, too, is NOT included in "shekol haTorah hametzuyah
atah veyadeinu hee hanesunah leMoshe Rabbeinu."
RHB: >> Halachic issues such as making a bracha on a Sefer Torah
(ST) by a sofer writing it, making a bracha on an Aliya, reading a pasul ST
publicly on Shabbas...., and fulfilling the mitzvah of writing a ST in cases
of
doubt are all discussed, and for the most part ruled leniently upon. See
Shulchan Aruch OC 143:4, and Mishna Berura. <<
TK: As long as the Sefer Torah you are using is perfect to the best of your
knowledge and to the best of your ability, it is not pasul, you can make a
bracha on it, you can have an aliyah, you can read from the Torah. You are
obsessing quite unnecessarily over slight differences, as you yourself know
from the very sources you yourself have cited, Shulchan Aruch and Mishna Berurah.
RHB: >> Yemenite ST: The Yemenite ST has at least 3 differences
(some say 9) when compared to our ST.
They make a bracha on reading the Torah, and so do we. They may (I do not
know) say Zot Hatorah
during Hagbah, while we for sure do. Is
this incongruous? How can we (and
perhaps they) both claim to have a correct version at the same time? <<
TK: "Vezos haTorah asher som Moshe lifnei Bnai Yisrael al pi Hashem beyad
Moshe" does NOT mean, as you seem to think, "This Torah which we are now
holding up in our shul is EXACTLY IDENTICAL in every detail to the sefer Torah
that Moshe Rabbeinu himself wrote." What it does mean, we will discuss below.
RHB: >> If someone from a Sefardi or Ashkenazi background, davened
at a Yemenite minyan, would he be allowed to make a Bracha on an Aliya,
seeing
as his mesorah is different? <<
TK: I believe the answer to that question is "yes."
RHB: >> Would he
have to fast if CV a ST was dropped in front of him? (According to
Sfardi/Ashkenazi tradition, the
Yemenite ST
should be viewed as Pasul, and thus perhaps not necessitating a fast.) <<
TK: An interesting halachic shaila, you would have to ask a rav if that
happened, but I believe, again, that the answer is yes, an Ashkenazi would have
to fast if a Yemenite sefer Torah was dropped.
RHB: >> Rambam Pr. No. 8 and Zot Hatorah said during Hagbah, both
state that the ST we have today is the same as that was given to Moshe
Rabeinu. If we say either of these two
statements, and/or teach them to our children or Baalei Teshuvot (Aish
Hatorah
is big on Rambam No. 8), are we (or the Yemenites or both) not over on
1. Midvar Sheker Tirchak <<
TK: No, it is not sheker to say "Our Torah is the same as Moshe Rabbeinu's."
RHB: >> 2. Ganeivas Daat and <<
TK: No, we are not deceiving anyone.
RHB: >> 3. Lifnei Iver (in the sense that
they may tell it to someone else) if in fact it turns out that someone does
not
have an accurate (to the letter) ST? <<
TK: Again, we are not deceiving anyone.
RHB: >> We are not doubting that the essence of the ST that we have
today is the same as what Moshe Rabeinu had, but only that in actual Letters
and/or Script, it may not be 100% "exactly the same." <<
TK: The statement "our Torah is the same as Moshe's" MEANS "the essence is
the same and the wording is as close to identical as human error will allow
over the course of thousands of years."
RHB: >> Finally, should a Sofer be required, in advance to inform
potential purchasers of ST and/or his services, about the current situation
regarding ST? Should he be required to
fully disclose, that the person purchasing a ST may only be fulfilling the
mitzvah to write a ST in a Bidieved manner?
If he does not fully disclose this, is the resultant sale tainted? <<
TK: It seems to you that there is a halacha -- or should be a halacha --
something like this: "A sofer is halachically obligated to state, when selling
a sefer Torah, that slightly different texts exist and that until Eliyahu
Hanavi comes, he cannot be 100% certain that the sefer Torah he has written is
identical to Moshe Rabbeinu's sefer Torah down to the last kutzo shel yud."
Since as you yourself wrote, the Rambam and many other authorities over the
centuries were well aware that slight differences had arisen between different
sifrei Torah, why do you suppose that none of them until you ever thought of
codifying such a halacha? Why do you suppose there is no such halacha in
the Shulchan Aruch or the Mishna Berurah?
>>>>>
As I said at the beginning, all of your questions are really one, and all
stem from the same misconception, which we have now cleared up.
So what then DO we mean when we say, "Ani ma'amin shekol haTorah hametzuyah
atah veyadeinu hee hanesunah leMoshe Rabbeinu"? What DO we mean when we
publicly declare, "Zos haTorah asher som Moshe lifnei Bnai Yisrael"?
To answer that question, you have to consider what alternative, false
beliefs Rambam was trying to counter with his formulation of "Ani ma'amin." If you
did NOT believe that our Torah is Toras Moshe, what else might you falsely
believe?
Well, here is a news flash: Wellhausen and the 19th century Bible critics
and Reformers were NOT the first people in history to deny the Divine
Authorship of the Torah!
Many centuries before they ever came along, there were people who said that
the Torah was made up by people and not by G-d. There were people who denied
that Moshe had ever lived or that Ma'amad Har Sinai had ever happened.
There were also people who believed that G-d had given the Torah to Moshe
but who claimed that the Jews had deliberately falsified and changed the Torah!
There were Christians who claimed that they were the "true Israel" and that
the Jews had deliberately re-written and falsified their Torah to delete all
references to their man-god, Yoshke.
There were Muslims who claimed that Avraham's true heir was Yishmael, and
that it was Yishmael, not Yitzchak, who had been bound on the altar at the
akeida. They said that the Jews had deliberately rewritten and falsified the
Torah in order to remove Yishmael from his deserved place in the Torah.
There were Sadducees and Karaites who denied the authority of the Rabbanim
and claimed that the Rabbanim could not be trusted to faithfully transmit the
Torah.
Every heresy of modern times -- the denial of the Divine authorship of the
Torah, the claim that it was written by people for their own purposes, the
claim that the Rabbis wrote it to bolster their authority over the ignorant
masses -- all had their precursors in earlier times. And it is against these
notions that we declare, "The Torah we have is Toras Moshe."
Rambam wrote in one of the Ani Ma'amins, "Zos haTorah lo sehei muchlefes."
Some people read it literally, childishly -- and mistakenly -- as, "This
Torah will never change" -- and if they find that Yemenite sifrei Torah differ
slightly from Ashkenazi sifrei Torah, their whole emunah is shaken! They start
to worry about whether they are apikorsim because they don't say "Ani
ma'min" with a whole heart, or whether Rambam really meant it or knew what he was
talking about, and so on and so on.
And all this angst is over a simple misunderstanding! "Zos haTorah lo sehei
muchlefes" means "Our Torah will never be EXCHANGED for another one." The
Christian claim of a 'New Testament' is false, there is not and will not be a
'New Testament' -- nor will Hashem ever exchange His Chosen People for some
other People. There is never going to be a Torah in which Avraham is tested
with Akeidas Yishmael. There is never going to be a Torah in which the day of
rest is Sunday. There is never going to be a Torah in which Jesus and
Mohammed are prophets.
"The Torah we have is the same one that was given to Moshe Rabbeinu" MEANS:
Hashem wrote the Torah and gave it to Moshe, and we have faithfully
transcribed and transmitted it, down through the centuries, to the best of our
ability. We are the true heirs of the Dor Hamidbar, we learned the Torah from our
parents and we will teach it to our children, ad bias goel, we are loyal and
faithful to the Torah and we have always been loyal and faithful to our holy
Torah. "Ha'azinu hashamayim va'adaberah...." -- Heaven and earth bear
witness that we are the same people who received the Torah, we are the sons of
Yisrael, and we still keep the Torah that Moshe Rabbeinu taught us. "Torah
tziva lanu Moshe, morasha kehillas Yakov."
--Toby Katz
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