[Avodah] Did RSRH Write LH about Shimon and Levi

[Moshe Y. Gluck]

R' YG:
> Of course Ramban maintains that she was raped.  It's Rashi and Ibn Ezra
> who don't say anything about rape.

And R' Saadia Gaon seems even clearer that Va'y'ane'ha wasn't rape - he translates Vayishkav Osah V'y'ane'ha: Vayishkav Osah Vayavoh Ale'ha. I'd like to point out that even if the translation of Va'y'ane'ha doesn't necessarily imply rape (unlike Ramban's understanding of the general usage of the word), the implication of the verses is that it wasn't with consent - he didn't speak to her with words of Piyus and Ritzui until after he slept with her, usually an indication of a lack of willingness on the woman's part. 
I was wondering why those who argue with Ramban would do so, common usage seems to be like he translates it. I thought that maybe it's because according to Ramban it should only have said Va'y'ane'ha, with the Vayishkav part implied. Therefore they have to translate Va'y'ane'ha as a term describing the Biah - which was painful, either by circumstance or definition.

KT,
MYG